MN568 Unit 10 Final
Question 1 2 / 2 points
Which statement about confusion is true?
Question options:
a) Confusion is a disease process.
b) Confusion is always temporary.
c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.
d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.
Question 2 0 / 2 points
Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?
Question options:
a) Meclizine
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Diamox
d) Promethazine
Question 3 2 / 2 points
The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
Question options:
a) No activity at all
b) A blank stare
c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily
d) The attack usually lasts several minutes
Question 4 2 / 2 points
How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?
Question options:
a) Every 3 months
b) Every 6 months
c) Annually
d) Whenever there is a problem
Question 5 2 / 2 points
Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?
Question options:
a) A teenage male
b) A 65-year-old male
c) A 25-year-old female
d) A 60-year-old female
Question 6 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is a specific test to MS?
Question options:
a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b) Computed tomography (CT) scan
c) A lumbar puncture
d) There is no specific test.
Question 7 2 / 2 points
Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?
Question options:
a) Cholinesterase inhibitors
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antidepressants
d) Atypical antipsychotics
Question 8 2 / 2 points
Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?
Question options:
a) Epidural hematoma
b) Subdural hematoma
c) Subarachnoid hematoma
d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?
Question options:
a) CN V
b) CN VII
c) CN IX
d) CN X
Question 10 2 / 2 points
Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?
Question options:
a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
Question options:
a) A female in her reproductive years
b) A 40-year-old African American male
c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Question 12 2 / 2 points
Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?
Question options:
a) Dementia
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Parkinson’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 13 2 / 2 points
Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?
Question options:
a) Purulent meningitis
b) Chronic meningitis
c) Aseptic meningitis
d) Herpes meningitis
Question 14 2 / 2 points
Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d) An initial lumbar puncture
Question 15 2 / 2 points
What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
Question options:
a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body
b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c) A pain that is worse upon awakening
d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal
Question 16 1 / 1 point
Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?
Question options:
a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”
b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”
Question 17 2 / 2 points
Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:
Question options:
a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”
Question 18 2 / 2 points
Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?
Question options:
a) Resting tremor
b) Bradykinesia
c) Rigidity
d) Postural instability
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?
Question options:
a) Light sensitivity
b) Pulsatile pain
c) Sound sensitivity
d) Experiencing an aura
Question 20 2 / 2 points
Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?
Question options:
a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.
b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.
c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.
d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.
Question 21 2 / 2 points
Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?
Question options:
a) Greater than 25%
b) Greater than 50%
c) Greater than 75%
d) Only for 100% occlusion
Question 22 2 / 2 points
What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?
Question options:
a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogrel
d) Aspirin and clopidogrel
Question 23 2 / 2 points
Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?
Question options:
a) MRI
b) CT
c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
d) EEG
Question 24 2 / 2 points
Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?
Question options:
a) Sam-e
b) Saint John’s Wort
c) Melatonin
d) Saw Palmetto
Question 25 0 / 2 points
Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?
Question options:
a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube
b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway
c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week
d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean
Question 26 2 / 2 points
About 90% of all headaches are?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Without pathological cause
Question 27 2 / 2 points
Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?
Question options:
a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.
b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.
c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.
d) These persons may drive but never alone.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?
Question options:
a) Glatiramer acetate
b) Natalizumab
c) Fingolimod
d) Glucocorticoids
Question 29 2 / 2 points
The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?
Question options:
a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) A CVA
d) Bell’s palsy
Question 30 2 / 2 points
A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?
Question options:
a) Spinothalamic dysfunction
b) Ratcheting
c) Cogwheeling
d) Hand tremors
Question 31 2 / 2 points
Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Huntington’s disease
Question 32 1 / 1 point
Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?
Question options:
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Delirium
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:
Question options:
a) SLUMS
b) MoCA
c) FAST
d) MMSE
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?
Question options:
a) 1 hour
b) 3 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours
Question 35 2 / 2 points
When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?
Question options:
a) Tension
b) Migraine
c) Cluster
d) Stress
Question 36 2 / 2 points
The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?
Question options:
a) Acetylcholine
b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c) Dopamine
d) Serotonin
Question 37 2 / 2 points
The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:
Question options:
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
Question 38 1 / 1 point
A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but…
